aPassage 45
While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely
government-controlled economy into a free one, the
experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly
shows one approach that works: privatization, in which
(5) state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By
1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned
industries were running at about t3 billion a year. By
selling many of these industries, the government has
decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over t34
(10) billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from
the newly privatized companies. Along with a dramatically
improved overall economy, the government has been able
to repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a
two-year period.
(15) In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual
industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but
has also raised the level of performance in every area. At
British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity
per employee has risen by 20 percent. At associated
(20) British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970’s and
early 1980’s have now virtually disappeared. At British
Telecom, there is no longer a waiting list-as there always
was before privatization-to have a telephone installed.
Part of this improved productivity has come about
(25) because the employees of privatized industries were given
the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They
responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares; at British
Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought
shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at
(30) British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal
stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work
to make it prosper. At the National Freight Consortium,
the new employee-owners grew so
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a concerned about their
company’s profits that during wage negotiations they
(35) actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.
Some economists have suggested that giving away free
shares would provide a needed acceleration of the privati-
zation process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine’s point that
“what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly.” In
(40) order for the far-ranging benefits of individual ownership
to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries,
employees and other individuals must make their own
decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own
resources to the choice.
1. According to the passage, all of the following were
benefits of privatizing state-owned industries in the
United Kingdom EXCEPT:
(A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the government.
(B) The government gained revenue from selling state-
owned industries.
(C) The government repaid some of its national debt.
(D) Profits from industries that were still state-owned
increased.
(E) Total borrowings and losses of state-owned
industries decreased.
2. According to the passage, which of the following
resulted in increased productivity in companies that
have been privatized?
(A) A large number of employees chose to purchase
shares in their companies.
(B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual
shareholders.
(C) The government ceased to regulate major industries.
(D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for employees.
(E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages
lowered.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
considers labor disruptions to be
(A) an inevitable problem in a weak national economy
(B) a positive sign of employee concern about a
company
(C) a predictor of employee reactions to a company’s
offer to sell shares to them <
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aBR>(D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned
industries than in private companies
(E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an
industry
4. The passage supports which of the following statements
about employees buying shares in their own companies?
(A) At three different companies, approximately nine
out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy
shares in their companies.
(B) Approximately 90% of the ellgible workers at three
different companies chose o buy shares in their
companies.
(C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged by at
least some labor unions.
(D) Companies
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that demonstrated the highest
productivity were the first to allow their employees
the opportunity to buy shares.
(E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on
employees’ agreeing to increased work loads.
5. Which of the following statements is most consistent
with the principle described in lines 30-32?
(A) A democratic government that decides it is
inappropriate to own a particular industry has in no
way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian of the
public interest.
(B) The ideal way for a government to protect employee
interests is to force companies to maintain their
share of a competitive market without government
subsidies.
(C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest is an
important reason that state-owned industries perform
poorly.
(D) Governments that want to implement privatization
programs must try to eliminate all resistance to the
free-market system.
(E) The individual shareholder will reap only a minute
share of the gains from whatever sacrifices he or she
makes to achieve these gains.
6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about the privatization process in the United Kingdom?
(A) It
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 adepends to a potentially dangerous degree on
individual ownership of shares.
(B) It conforms in its most general outlines to Thomas
Palne’s prescription for business ownership.
(C) It was originally conceived to include some giving
away of free shares.
(D) It has been successful, even though privatization has
failed in other countries.
(E) It is taking place more slowly than some economists
suggest is necessary.
7. The quotation in line 39 is most probably used to
(A) counter a position that the author of the passage
believes is incorrect
(B) state a solution to a problem described in the
previous sentence
(C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the author
of the passage have supported their arguments
(D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial
viewpoint
(E) present a historical maxim to challenge the principle
introduced in the third paragraph
Passage 46
As the economic role of multinational, global corpora-
tions expands, the international economic environment will
be shaped increasingly not by governments or international
institutions, but by the interaction between governments
(5) and global corporations, especially in the United States,
Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in this shifting
world economy is the trend toward regional trading biocs
of nations, which has a potentially large effect on the
evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of
(10) this trend are the United States-Canada Free Trade
Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the
European Community (EC) to dismantle impediments to
the free flow of goods, services, capital, and labor among
member states by the end of 1992. However, although
(15) numerous political and economic factors were operative in
launching the move to integrate the EC’s markets, concern
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a
about protectionism within the EC does not appear to have
been a major consideration. This is in sharp contrast to the
FTA, the overwhelming reason for that bilateral initiative
(20) was fear of increasing United States protectionism. None-
theless, although markedly different in origin and nature,
both regional developments are highly significant in that
they will foster integration in the two largest and richest
markets of the world, as well as provoke questions
(25) about the future direction of the world trading system.
1. The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
(A) describe an initiative and propose its continuance
(B) chronicle a development and illustrate its
inconsistencies
(C) identify a trend and suggest its importance
(D) summarize a process and question its significance
(E) report a phenomenon and outline its probable future
2. According to the passage, all of the following are
elements of the shifting world economy EXCEPT
(A) an alteration in the role played by governments
(B) an increase in interaction between national
governments and international regulatory institutions
(C) an increase in the formation of multinational trading
alliances
(D) an increase in integration in the two riche
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st markets
of the world
(E) a fear of increasing United States protectionism
3. The passage suggests which of the following about
global corporations?
(A) Their continued growth depends on the existence of
a fully integrated international market.
(B) Their potential effect on the world market is a matter
of ongoing concern to international institutions.
(C) They will have to assume quasi-governmental
functions if current economic trends continue.
(D) They have provided a model of economic success
for regional trading blocs.
(E) Their influence on w
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aorld economics will continue to
increase
4. According to the passage, one similarity between the
FTA and Europe 1992 is that they both
(A) overcame concerns about the role of politics in the
shifting world economy
(B) originated out of concern over unfair trade practices
by other nations
(C) exemplify a trend toward regionalization of
commercial markets.
(D) place the economic needs of the trading bloc ahead
of those of the member nations
(E) help to ensure the continued economic viability of
the world community
5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
about the European Community prior to the adoption of
the Europe 1992 program?
(A) There were restrictions on commerce between the
member nations.
(B) The economic policies of the member nations
focused on global trading issues.
(C) There were few impediments to trade between the
member nations and the United States.
(D) The flow of goods between the member nations and
Canada was insignificant.
(E) Relations between multinational corporations and
the governments of the member nations were
strained.
6. The author discusses the FTA and Europe 1992 most
likely in order to
(A) point out the similarities between two seemingly
disparate trading alliances
(B) illustrate how different economic motivations
produce different types of trading blocs
(C) provide contrasting examples of a trend that is
influencing the world economy
(D) identify the most important characteristics of
successful economic integration
(E) trace the history of regional trading blocs
7. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) An argument is put forth and evidence for and
against it given.
(B) An assertion is made and opposing evidence
pres
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aented.
(C) Two hypotheses are described and shown to
inconsistent with one another.
(D) A phenomenon is identified and illustrations of this
phenomenon offered.
(E) A specific case of a phenomenon is discussed a
generalization drawn.
Passage 47
In Forces of Production, David Noble examines the
transformation of the machine-tool industry as the industry
moved from reliance on skilled artisans to automation.
Noble writes from a Marxist perspective, and his central
(5) argument is that management, in its decisions to automate,
conspired against labor: the power that the skilled machin-
ists wielded in the industry was intolerable to management.
Noble fails to substantiate this claim, although his argu-
ment is impressive when he applies the Marxist concept of
(10) “de-skilling”-the use of technology to replace skilled
labor-to the automation of the machine-tool industry. In
automating, the industry moved to computer-based, digi-
talized “numerical-control” (N/C) technology, rather than to
artisan-generated “record-playback” (R/P) technology.
(15) Although both systems reduced reliance on skilled labor,
Noble clearly prefers R/P, with its inherent acknowledg-
ment of workers’ skills: unlike N/C, its programs were
produced not by engineers at their computers, but by
skilled machinists, who recorded their own movements to
(20) “teach” machines to duplicate those movements. However,
Noble’s only evidence of conspiracy is that, although the
two approaches were roughly equal in technical merit,
management chose N/C. From this he concludes that auto-
mation is undertaken not because efficiency demands it or
(25) scientific advances allow it, but because it is a tool in
the ceaseless war of capitalists against labor.
1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
上一页 [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] [6] [7] [8] [9] [10] [11] 下一页
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a) reexamining a political position and defending its
validity
(B) examining a management decision and defending its
necessity
(C) analyzing a scholarly study and pointing out a
central weakness
(D) explaining a trend in automation and warning about
its dangers
(E) chronicling the history of an industry and criticizing
its development
2. According to information in the passage, the term “de-
skilling” refers to the
(A) loss of skills to industry when skilled workers are
replaced by unskilled laborers
(B) substitution of mechanized processes for labor
formerly performed by skilled workers
(C) labor theory that automation is technologically
comparable to skilled labor
(D) process by which skilled machinists “teach”
machines to perform certain tasks
(E) exclusion of skilled workers from participation in
the development of automated technology
3. Which of the following best characterizes the function
of the second paragraph of the passage?
(A) It develops a topic introduced in the first paragraph.
(B) It provides evidence to refute a claim presented in
the first paragraph.
(C) It gives examples of a phenomenon mentioned in the
first paragraph.
(D) It presents a generalization about examples given in
the first paragraph.
(E) It suggests two possible solutions to a problem
presented in the first paragraph.
4. The passage suggests which of the following about N
automation in the machine-tool industry?
(A) It displaced fewer skilled workers than R/P
automation did.
(B) It could have been implemented either by
experienced machinists or by computer engineers.
(C) It was designed without the active involvement
skilled machinists.
(D) It was more difficult to design than R/P automation
was.
(E) It was technically superior
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 ato R/P automation.
5. Which of the following phrases most clearly reveals the
attitude of the author of the passage toward Noble’s
central argument?
(A) “conspired against” (line 6)
(B) “intolerable to management” (line 7)
(C) “impressive when he applies the Marxist concept”
(line 9)
(D) “clearly prefers” (line 16)
(E) “only evidence of conspiracy” (line 21)
6. The author of the passage commends Noble’s book for
which of the following?
(A) Concentrating on skilled as opposed to unskilled
workers in its discussion of the machine-tool
industry
(B) Offering a generalization about the motives behind
the machine-tool industry’s decision to automate
(C) Making an essential distinction between two kinds
of technology employed in the machine-tool industry
(D) Calling into question the notion that managers
conspired against labor in the automation of the
machine-tool industry
(E) Applying the concept of de-skilling to the machine-
tool industry
7. Which of the following best characterizes Forces of
Production as it is described in the passage?
(A) A comparison of two interpretations of how a
particular industry evolved
(B) An examination of the origin of a particular conceptin industrial economics
(C) A study that points out the weakness of a particular
interpretation of an industrial phenomenon
(D) A history of a particular industry from an
ideological point of view
(E) An attempt to relate an industrial phenomenon in
one industry to a similar phenomenon in another
industry
Passage 48
The sensation of pain cannot accurately be described as
“located” at the point of an injury, or, for that matter,
in any one place in the nerves or brain. Rather, pain
signals-and pain relief-are delivered through a highly
(5) complex int
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aeracting circuitry.
When a cell is injured, a rush of prostaglandin’s
sensitizes nerve endings at the injury. Prostaglandins are
chemicals produced in and released from virtually all
mammalian cells when they are injured: these are the only
(10) pain signals that do not originate in the nervous system.
Aspirin and other similar drugs (such as indomethacin and
ibuprofen) keep prostaglandins from being made by inter-
fering with an enzyme known as prostaglandin synthetase,
or cyclooxygenase. The drugs’ effectiveness against pain i
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s
(15) proportional to their success in blocking this enzyme at the
site of injury.
From nerve endings at the injury, pain signais move to
nerves feeding into the spinal cord. The long, tubular
membranes of nerve cells carry electrical impulses. When
(20) electrical impulses get to the spinal cord, a pain-signaling
chemical known as substance P is released there.
Substance P then excites nearby neurons to send impulses
to the brain. Local anesthetics such as novocaine and
xylocaine work by blocking the electrical transmission
(25)along nerves in a particular area. They inhibit the flow of
sodium ions through the membranes, making the nerves
electrically quiescent; thus no pain signals are sent to the
spinal cord or to the brain.
Recent discoveries in the study of pain have involved
(30) the brain itself-the supervising organ that notices pain
signals and that sends messages down to the spinal cord
to regulate incoming pain traffic. Endorphins-the brain’s
own morphine-are a class of small peptides that help to
block pain signals within the brain itself. The presence
(35) of endorphins may also help to explain differences in
response to pain signals, since individuals seem to differ
in their ability to produce endorphins. It now appears that
a number of techniques for block
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aing chronic pain-such
as acupuncture and electrical stimulation of the central
(40) brain stem-involve the release of endorphins in the brain
and spinal cord.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) analyzing ways that enzymes and other chemicals
influence how the body feels pain
(B) describing the presence of endorphins in the brain
and discussing ways the body blocks pain within the
brain itself.
(C) describing how pain signals are conveyed in the
body and discussing ways in which the pain signals
can be blocked
(D) demonstrating that pain can be influenced by
acupuncture and electrical stimulation of the central
brain stem.
(E) differentiating the kinds of pain that occur at
different points in the body’s nervous system.
2. According to the passage, which of the following is one
of the first things to occur when cells are injured?
(A) The flow of electrical impulses through nerve cells
at the site of the injury is broken.
(B) The production of substance P traveling through
nerve cells to the brain increases.
(C) Endorphins begin to speed up the response of nerve
cells at the site of the injury.
(D) A flood of prostaglandins sensitizes nerve endings at
the site of the injury.
(E) Nerve cells connected to the spinal cord become
electrically quiescent.
3. Of the following, which is most likely attributable to the
effect of endorphins as described in the passage?
(A) After an injection of novocaine, a patient has no
feeling in the area where the injection was given.
(B) After taking ibuprofen, a person with a headache
gets quick relief.
(C) After receiving a local anesthetic, an injured person
reports relief in the anestherized area.
(D) After being given aspirin, a child with a badly
scraped elbow feels better.
(E) After
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aacupuncture, a patient with chronic back pain
reports that the pain is much less severe.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that if the
prostaglandin synthetase is only partially blocked, which
of the following is likely to be true?
(A) Some endorphins will be produced, and some pain
signals will be intensified.
(B) Some substance P is likely to be produced, so some
pain signals will reach the brain.
(C) Some sodium ions will be blocked, so some pain
signals will not reach the brain.
(D) Some prostaglandins will be produced, but
production of substance P will be prevented.
(E) Some peptides in the brain will receive pain signals
and begin to regulate incoming pain traffic.
Passage 49
Traditionally, the first firm to commercialize a new
technology has benefited from the unique opportunity to
shape product definitions, forcing followers to adapt to a
standard or invest in an unproven alternative. Today, how-
( 5) ever, the largest payoffs may go to companies that lead in
developing integrated approaches for successful mass
production and distribution.
Producers of the Beta format for videocassette r
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ecorders
(VCR’s), for example, were first to develop the VCR com-
(10) mercially in 1975, but producers of the rival VHS (Video
Home System) format proved to be more successful at
forming strategic alliances with other producers and
distributors to manufacture and market their VCR format
Seeking to maintain exclusive control over VCR distri-
(15) bution. Beta producers were reluctant to form such alli-
ances and eventually lost ground to VHS in the compe-
tition for the global VCR market.
Despite Beta’s substantial technological head start and
the fact that VHS was neither technically better nor cheaper
(20) than Beta, developers of VHS quickly turned a slight earl
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 ay
lead in sales into a dominant position. Strategic alignments
with producers of prerecorded tapes reinforced the VHS
advantage. The perception among consumers that prere-
corded tapes were more available in VHS format further
(25) expanded VHS’s share of the market. By the end of the
1980’s. Beta was no longer in production.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with which of the
following?
(A) Evaluating two competing technologies
(B) Tracing the impact of a new technology by narrating
a sequence of events
(C) Reinterpreting an event from contemporary business
history
(D) illustrating a business strategy by means of a case
history
(E) Proposing an innovative approach to business
planning
2. According to the passage, today’s successful firms,
unlike successful firms in the past, may earn the greatest
profits by
(A) investing in research to produce cheaper versions of
existing technology
(B) being the first to market a competing technology
(C) adapting rapidly to a technological standard
previously set by a competing firm
(D) establishing technological leadership in order to
shape product definitions in advance of competing
firms.
(E) emphasizing the development of methods for the
mass production and distribution of a new
technology.
3. According to the passage, consumers began to develop a
preference for VCR’s in the VHS format because they
believed which of the following?
(A) VCR’s in the VHS format were technically better
than competing-format VCR’s.
(B) VCR’s in the VHS format were less expensive than
competing-format VCR’s.
(C) VHS was the first standard format for VCR’s.
(D) VHS prerecorded videotapes were more available
than Beta-format tapes.
(E) VCR’s in the Beta format would soon cease to be
produced.
won control over the VCR market was by
(A) carefully restricting access to VCR technology
(B) giving up a slight early lead in VCR sales in order to
improve long-term prospects.
(C) retaining a strict monopoly on the production of
prerecorded videotapes.
(D) sharing control of the marketing of VHS-format
VCR’s
(E) sacrificing technological superiority over Betaformat
VCR’s in order to remain competitive in price.
5. The alignment of producers of VHS-format VCR’s with
producers of prerecorded videotapes is most similar to
which of the following?
(A) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
another automobile manufacturer to adopt a
standard design for automobile engines.
(B) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
an automotive glass company whereby the
manufacturer agrees to purchase automobile
windshields only from that one glass company
(C) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with a
petroleum company to ensure the widespread
availability of the fuel required by a new type of
engine developed by the manufacturer.
(D) The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
its dealers to adopt a plan to improve automobile
design.
(E) The alignment of an automobile dealer with an
automobile rental chain to adopt a strategy for an
advertising campaign to promote a new type of
automobile
6. Which of the following best describes the relation of the
first paragraph to the passage as a whole?
(A) It makes a general observation to be exemplified.
(B) It outlines a process to be analyzed.
(C) It poses a question to be answered.
(D) It advances an argument to be disputed.
(E) It introdu
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ces conflicting arguments to be reconciled.
Passage 50
Australian researchers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 ahave discovered electroreceptors
(sensory organs designed to respond to electrical fields)
clustered at the tip of the spiny anteater’s snout. The
researchers made this discovery by exposing small areas of
(5) the snout to extremely weak electrical fields and recording
the transmission of resulting nervous activity to the brain.
While it is true that tactile receptors, another kind of
sensory organ on the anteater’s snout, can also respond to
electrical stimuli, such receptors do so only in response to
( 10) electrical field strengths about 1,000 times greater than
those known to excite electroreceptors.
Having discovered the electroreceptors, researchers are
now investigating how anteaters utilize such a sophisticated
sensory system. In one behavioral experiment, researchers
(15) successfully trained an anteater to distinguish between
two troughs of water, one with a weak electrical field
and the other with none. Such evidence is consistent with
researchers’ hypothesis that anteaters use electroreceptors
to detect electrical signals given off by prey; however,
( 20) researchers as yet have been unable to detect electrical
signals emanating from termite mounds, where the favorite
food of anteaters live. Still, researchers have observed
anteaters breaking into a nest of ants at an oblique angle
and quickly locating nesting chambers. This ability quickly
(25) to locate unseen prey suggests, according to the researchers,
that the anteaters were using their electroreceptors to
locate the nesting chambers.
1. According to the passage, which of the following is a
characteristic that distinguishes electroreceptors from
tactile receptors?
(A) The manner in which electroreceptors respond to
electrical stimuli
(B) The tendency of electroreceptors to be found in
clusters
(C) The unusual locati
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aons in which electroreceptors are
found in most species.
(D) The amount of electrical stimulation required to
excite electroreceptors
(E) The amount of nervous activity transmitted to the
brain by electroreceptors when they are excited
2. Which of the following can be inferred about the
experiment described in the first paragraph?
(A) Researchers had difficulty verifying the existence of
electroreceptors in the anteater because
electroreceptors respond to such a narrow range of
electrical field strengths.
(B) Researchers found that the level of nervous activity
in the anteater’s brain increased dramatically as the
strength of the electrical stimulus was increased.
(C) Researchers found that some areas of the anteater’s
snout were not sensitive to a weak electrical
stimulus.
(D) Researchers found that the anteater’s tactile
receptors were more easily excited by a strong
electrical stimulus than were the electro receptors..
(E) Researchers tested small areas of the anteater’s snout
in order to ensure that only electroreceptors were
responding to the stimulus.
3. The author of the passage most probably discusses the
function of tactile receptors (lines 7-11) in order to
(A) eliminate and alternative explanation of anteaters’
response to electrical stimuli
(B) highlight a type of sensory organ that has a function
identical to that of electroreceptors
(C) point out a serious complication in the research on
electroreceptors in anteaters.
(D) suggest that tactile receptors assist electroreceptors
in the detection of electrical signals.
(E) introduce a factor that was not addressed in the
research on electroreceptors in anteaters.
4. Which of the following can be inferred about anteaters
from the behavioral experiment mentioned in the
seco
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 and paragraph?
(A) They are unable to distinguish between stimuli
detected by their electroreceptors and stimuli
detected by their tactile receptors.
(B) They are unable to distinguish between the electrical
signals emanating from termite mounds and those
emanating from ant nests.
(C) They can be trained to recognize consistently the
presence of a particular stimulus.
(D)
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They react more readily to strong than to weak
stimuli.
(E) They are more efficient at detecting stimuli in a
controlled environment than in a natural
environment.
5. The passage suggests that the researchers mentioned in
the second paragraph who observed anteaters break into
a nest of ants would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?
(A) The event they observed provides conclusive
evidence that anteaters use their electroreceptors to
locate unseen prey.
(B) The event they observed was atypical and may not
reflect the usual hunting practices of anteaters.
(C) It is likely that the anteaters located the ants’ nesting
chambers without the assistance of electroreceptors.
(D) Anteaters possess a very simple sensory system for
use in locating prey.
(E) The speed with which the anteaters located their
prey is greater than what might be expected on the
basis of chance alone.
6. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen
the hypothesis mentioned in lines 17-19?
(A) Researchers are able to train anteaters to break into
an underground chamber that is emitting a strong
electrical signal.
(B) Researchers are able to detect a weak electrical
signal emanating from the nesting chamber of an ant
colony.
(C) Anteaters are observed taking increasingly longer
amounts of time to locate the nesting chambers of
ants.
(D) Anteaters are observed usi
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 ang various angles to break
into nests of ants.
(E) Anteaters are observed using the same angle used
with nests of ants to break into the nests of other types
of prey.
Passage 51
When A. Philip Randolph assumed the leadership of the
Brotherhood of Sleeping Car Porters, he began a ten-year
battle to win recognition from the Pullman Company, the
largest private employer of Black people in the United
(5) States and the company that controlled the railroad
industry’s sleeping car and parlor service. In 1935 the
Brotherhood became the first Black union recognized by a
major corporation. Randolph’s efforts in the battle helped
transform the attitude of Black workers toward unions and
(10) toward themselves as an identifiable group; eventually,
Randolph helped to weaken organized labor’s antagonism
toward Black workers.
In the Pullman contest Randolph faced formidable
obstacles. The first was Black workers’ understandable
( 15) skepticism toward unions, which had historically barred
Black workers from membership. An additional obstacle
was the union that Pullman itself had formed, which
weakened support among Black workers for an
independent entity.
(20) The Brotherhood possessed a number of advantages,
however, including Randolph’s own tactical abilities. In
1928 he took the bold step of threatening a strike against
Pullman. Such a threat, on a national scale, under Black
leadership, helped replace the stereotype of the Black
(25)worker as servant with the image of the Black worker as
wage earner. In addition, the porters’ very isolation aided
the Brotherhood. Porters were scattered throughout the
country, sleeping in dormitories in Black communities;
their segregated life protected the union’s internal
(30) communications from interception. That the porters were a
homogen
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aeous group working for a single employer with
single labor policy, thus sharing the same grievances from
city to city, also strengthened the Brotherhood and encour-
aged racial identity and solidarity as well. But it was only
(35) in the early 1930’s that federal legislation prohibiting a
company from maintaining its own unions with company
money eventually allowed the Brotherhood to become
recognized as the porters’ representative.
Not content with this triumph, Randolph brought the
(40) Brotherhood into the American Federation of Labor, where
it became the equal of the Federation’s 105 other unions.
He reasoned that as a member union, the Brotherhood
would be in a better position to exert pressure on member
unions that practiced race restrictions. Such restrictions
were eventually found unconstitutional in 1944.
1. According to the passage, by 1935 the skepticism of
Black workers toward unions was
(A) unchanged except among Black employees of
railroad-related industries.
(B) reinforced
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by the actions of the Pullman Company’s
union
(C) mitigated by the efforts of Randolph
(D) weakened by the opening up of many unions to
Black workers.
(E) largely alleviated because of the policies of the
American Federation of Labor.
2. In using the word “understandable” (line 14), the
author most clearly conveys
(A) sympathy with attempts by the Brotherhood
between 1925 and 1935 to establish an independent
union.
(B) concern that the obstacles faced by Randolph
between 1925 and 1935 were indeed formidable
(C) ambivalence about the significance of unions to
most Black workers in the 1920’s.
(D) appreciation of the attitude of many Black workers
in the 1920’s toward unions.
(E) regret at the historical attitude of unions toward
Black workers.
3. The pa
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 assage suggests which of the following about the
response of porters to the Pullman Company’s own
union?
(A) Few porters ever joined this union.
(B) Some porters supported this union before 1935.
(C) Porters, more than other Pullman employees,
enthusiastically supported this union.
(D) The porters’ response was most positive after 1935.
(E) The porters’ response was unaffected by the general
skepticism of Black workers concerning unions.
4. The passage suggests that if the grievances of porters in
one part of the United States had been different from
those of porters in another part of the country, which of
the following would have been the case?
(A) It would have been more difficult for the Pullman
Company to have had a single labor policy.
(B) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to control its channels of
communication.
(C) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to uild its membership.
(D) It would have been easier for the Pullman
Company’s union to attract membership.
(E) It would have been easier for the Brotherhood to
threaten strikes.
5. The passage suggests that in the 1920’s a company in
the United States was able to
(A) use its own funds to set up a union
(B) require its employees to join the company’s own
union
(C) develop a single labor policy for all its employees
with little employee dissent.
(D) pressure its employees to contribute money to
maintain the company’s own union
(E) use its resources to prevent the passage of federal
legislation that would have facilitated the formation
of independent unions.
6. The passage supplies information concerning which of
the following matters related to Randolph?
(A) The steps he took to initiate the founding of the
Brotherhood
(B) His motivatio
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 an for bringing the Brotherhood into the
American Federation of Labor
(C) The influence he had on the passage of legislation
overturning race restrictions in 1944
(D) The influence he had on the passage of legislation to
bar companies from financing their own unions
(E) The success he and the Brotherhood had in
influencing the policies of the other unions in the
American Federation of Labor
Passage 52
Seeking a competitive advantage, some professional
service firms(for example, firms providing advertising,
accounting, or health care services) have considered
offering unconditional guarantees of satisfaction. Such
(5)guarantees specify what clients can expect and what the
firm will do if it fails to fulfill these expectations.
Particularly with first-time clients, an unconditional
guarantee can be an effective marketing tool if the
client is very cautious, the firm’s fees are high, the
(10) negative consequences of bad service are grave, or
business is difficult to obtain through referrals and
word-of-mouth.
However, an unconditional guarantee can sometimes
hinder marketing efforts. With its implication that fail-
(15) ure is possible, the guarantee may, paradoxically, cause
clients to doubt the service firm’s ability to deliver the
promised level of service. It may conflict with a firm’s
desire to appear sophisticated, or may even suggest that
a firm is begging for business. In legal and health care
(20) services, it may mislead clients by suggesting that law-
suits or medical procedures will have guaranteed out-
comes. Indeed, professional service firms with outstandin
reputation
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s and performance to match have little to gain
from offering unconditional guarantees. And any firm
(25) that implements an unconditional guarantee without
undertaking a commensurate comm
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 aitment to quality of
service is merely employing a potentially costly
marketing gimmick.
1. The primary function of the passage as a whole is to
(A) account for the popularity of a practice
(B) evaluate the utility of a practice
(C) demonstrate how to institute a practice
(D) weigh the ethics of using a strategy
(E) explain the reasons for pursuing a strategy
2. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as
circumstances in which professional service firms can
benefit from offering an unconditional guarantee
EXCEPT:
(A) The firm is having difficulty retaining its clients of
long standing.
(B) The firm is having difficulty getting business
through client recommendations.
(C) The firm charges substantial fees for its services.
(D) The adverse effects of poor performance by the firm
are significant for the client.
(E) The client is reluctant to incur risk.
3. Which of the following is cited in the passage as a goal
of some professional service firms in offering
unconditional guarantees of satisfaction?
(A) A limit on the firm’s liability
(B) Successful competition against other firms
(C) Ability to justify fee increases
(D) Attainment of an outstanding reputation in a field
(E) Improvement in the quality of the firm’s service
4. The passage’s description of the issue raised by
unconditional guarantees for health care or legal
services most clearly implies that which of the following
is true?
(A) The legal and medical professions have standards of
practice that would be violated by attempts to fulfill
such unconditional guarantees.
(B) The result of a lawsuit of medical procedure cannot
necessarily be determined in advance by the
professionals handling a client’s case.
(C) The dignity of the legal and medical professions is
undermined b
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 ay any attempts at marketing of
professional services, including unconditional
guarantees.
(D) Clients whose lawsuits or medical procedures have
unsatisfactory outcomes cannot be adequately
compensated by financial settlements alone.
(E) Predicting the monetary cost of legal or health care
services is more difficult than predicting the
monetary cost of other types of professional
services.
5. Which of the following hypothetical situations best
exemplifies the potential problem noted in the second
sentence of the second paragraph (lines 14-17)?
(A) A physician’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction encourages patients to sue for
malpractice if they are unhappy with the treatment
they receive.
(B) A lawyer’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction
makes clients suspect that the lawyer needs to find
new clients quickly to increase the firm’s income.
(C) A business consultant’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction is undermined when the consultant fails
to provide all of the services that are promised.
(D) An architect’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction makes clients wonder how often the
architect’s buildings fail to please clients.
(E) An accountant’s unconditional guarantee of
satisfaction leads clients to believe that tax returns
prepared by the accountant are certain to be
accurate.
6. The passage most clearly implies which of the following
about the professional service firms mentioned in line
22?
(A) They are unlikely to have offered unconditional
guarantees of satisfaction in the past.
(B) They are usually profitable enough to be able to
compensate clients according to the terms of an
unconditional guarantee.
(C) They usually practice in fields in which the
outcomes are predictable.
(D) Their fees are
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a usually more affordable than those
charged by other professional service firms.
(E) Their clients are usually already satisfied with the
quality of service that is delivered.
Passage 53
Although genetic mutations in bacteria and viruses
can lead to epidemics, some epidemics ar
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e caused by
bacteria and viruses that have undergone no significant
genetic change. In analyzing the latter, scientists have
(5) discovered the importance of social and ecological fac-
tors to epidemics. Poliomyelitis, for example, emerged
as an epidemic in the United States in the twentieth
century; by then, modern sanitation was able to delay
exposure to polio until adolescence or adulthood, at
(10) which time polio infection produced paralysis. Previ-
ously, infection had occurred during infancy, when it
typically provided lifelong immunity without paralysis.
Thus, the hygiene that helped prevent typhoid epidemics
indirectly fostered a paralytic polio epidemic. Another
(15) example is Lyme disease, which is caused by bacteria
that are transmitted by deer ticks. It occurred only spo-
radically during the late nineteenth century but has
recently become prevalent in parts of the United States,
largely due to an increase in the deer population that
(20) occurred simultaneously with the growth of the suburbs
and increased outdoor recreational activities in the
deer’s habitat. Similarly, an outbreak of dengue hemor-
rhagic fever became an epidemic in Asia in the 1950’s
because of ecological changes that caused Aedes aegypti,
(25) the mosquito that transmits the dengue virus, to proliferate
The stage is now set in the United States for a
dengue epidemic because of the inadvertent introduction
and wide dissemination of another mosquito, Aedes
albopictus.
1. The passage suggests that a lack of modern
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 asanitation
would make which of the following most likely to
occur?
(A) An outbreak of Lyme disease
(B) An outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever
(C) An epidemic of typhoid
(D) An epidemic of paralytic polio among infants
(E) An epidemic of paralytic polio among adolescents
and adults
2. According to the passage, the outbreak of dengue
hemorrhagic fever in the 1950’s occurred for which of
the following reasons?
(A) The mosquito Aedes aegypti was newly introduced
into Asia.
(B) The mosquito Aedes aegypti became more
numerous.
(C) The mosquito Aedes albopictus became infected
with the dengue virus.
(D) Individuals who would normally acquire immunity
to the dengue virus as infants were not infected until
later in life.
(E) More people began to visit and inhabit areas in
which mosquitos live and breed.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that Lyme disease
has become prevalent in parts of the United States
because of which of the following?
(A) The inadvertent introduction of Lyme disease
bacteria to the United States
(B) The inability of modern sanitation methods to
eradicate Lyme disease bacteria
(C) A genetic mutation in Lyme disease bacteria that
makes them more virulent
(D) The spread of Lyme disease bacteria from infected
humans to noninfected humans
(E) An increase in the number of humans who encounter
deer ticks
4. Which of the following can most reasonably be
concluded about the mosquito Aedes albopictus on the
basis of information given in the passage?
(A) It is native to the United States.
(B) It can proliferate only in Asia.
(C) It transmits the dengue virus.
(D) It caused an epidemic of dengue hemorrhagic fever
in the 1950’s.
(E) It replaced Aedes aegypti in Asia when ecological
changes altered Aedes
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 a, aegypti’s habitat.
5. Which of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) A paradox is stated, discussed and left unresolved.
(B) Two opposing explanations are presented, argued,
and reconciled.
(C) A theory is proposed and is then followed by
descriptions of three experiments that support the
theory.
(D) A generalization is stated and is then followed by
three instances that support the generalization.
(E) An argument is described and is then followed by
three counterexamples that refute the argument.
6. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen
the author’s assertion about the cause of the Lyme
disease outbreak in the United States?
(A) The deer population was smaller in the late
nineteenth century than in the mid-twentieth century.
(B) Interest in outdoor recreation began to grow in the
late nineteenth century.
(C) In recent years the
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